KJV Question #3.1

*Please read the post labeled "PLEASE READ" before posting a comment.

I have heard many arguments that translators of other English Bibles used the Septuagint (Old Testament translated into Greek) while translating. While I cannot verify this nor that the KJV translators did not use it I can offer what the translators said about it. Again, in the 1611 A.V. Preface, the translators made mention of the "Seventy" (a.k.a Septuagint). Here is what they said: "The translation of the Seventy dissenteth from the original in many places, neither doth it come near it for perspicuity, gravity, majesty; yet which of the Apostles did condemn it? Condemn it? Nay, they used it, (as is apparent, and as Saint Hierome [Jerome] and the most learned men to confess)..."

If you would like the photocopy version, it is here. (Read the note about the link on my last post.) The sentences I quoted are about halfway down the first new paragraph.

The Question: Why condemn the Septuagint when the translators of the KJV accepted it?