KJV Question #3.2

*Please read the post labeled "PLEASE READ" before posting a comment.

I think this will be the final KJV only post. It again comes from the 1611 Preface to the Authorised Version. What the translators have said in the following quote, for me, has quite possibly been the strongest argument against the KJV only position.

"Therefore as S. Augustine saith, that variety of Translations is profitable for the finding out of the sense of the scriptures: so diversity and signification and sense in the margin, where the text is no so clear, must needs do good, yea, is necessary, as we are persuaded.... They that are wise, had rather have their judgements at liberty in differ differences of readings, than to be captivated to one, when it may be the other."

I do not understand why, if God inspired these translators, and if the KJV is God's one true word whether anywhere or just in English, that the translators would say this. "Variety of translations?" This certainly implies that the translators were not KJV-only. This implication is reinforced later by the last sentence quoted above.

The Question: If the translators were inspired of God to write the KJV and it be the one true translation, why would they write such contrdictory ideas in its preface--ideas that directly contradict the KJV only position?

*Please know that I do not hate nor are bashing the KJV. I do love and accept it. Most of scripture I have memorized has been from the A.V. I have prayed time and again that God would reveal to me whether or not the KJV is truly His one true word. He has not. In fact, I feel He has convicted me to the contrary.
My focus for this part of the blog has been not to note scriptural differences among the translations (for I am no scholar), but to raise inconsistanties within the KJV only position (which I used to be a part of).