Saturday, August 15, 2009

KJV Question #1

*Please read the post labeled "PLEASE READ" before posting a comment.

Lets get started. As stated in the Intro post, these few first questions are controversial. In fact, they pertain to the belief that the King James Version of the Bible, or Authorised Version, is the only version inspired of God for the English language.
Here is the topic surrounding the first of these questions:

One argument I often hear for this position is that the KJV/A.V. is the only translation of the Bible which has no copyright. If God's word cannot have a copyright, then all modern versions cannot be of God.
In the United Kingdom there has been a copyright of sorts (well, a near equivalent to what we know a copyright to be today) since just after the Reformation. King James I of England added this "copyright" (Cum Privilegio, which means "with privilage" or "right,"
as seen in early editions of the KJV/A.V.) to the Authorised Version. That meant that the Bible could not be printed in England without a license from the Crown. King James I did not put this copyright in his name, but in the name of the Crown of England. What is the significance of this? The copyright on the KJV/A.V. will last as long as the Crown of England is in existance plus fifty years. The copyright is still in existance today. Even though this copyright does not exist in America, it has been in existance before America.
The question: How could this have been overlooked when developing this arguement? (I myself have just recently found out about the copyright.)

1 comment:

  1. You stated that this notice was to be found in early editions of the KJV. You might also like to know that it is still printed in current editions. Any KJV published in England or countries loyal to the crown contain this notice. Just go down to your local book store and open up either a Cambridge or an Oxford KJV to see this.

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